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Which of the following is NOT a process involving epithelial to mesenchymal transition?


A) Migration of neural crest cells away from the neural tube
B) The detachment and migration of epithelial cells
C) Delamination of primary mesenchyme cells during sea urchin gastrulation
D) Metastasis of epithelial tumours
E) Formation of the central lumenal space

F) B) and E)
G) D) and E)

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Haematopoietic stem cells give rise to


A) haemoglobin.
B) blood cells.
C) totipotent cells.
D) odour receptor cells.
E) topoietic cells in the bone marrow.

F) B) and D)
G) A) and D)

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In an experiment on an early frog embryo, cells from the region that will eventually form the neural plate were transplanted to another part of the blastula. It was noticed that the transplanted tissue formed a second neural plate later in the embryo's development. The best explanation for this observation is that


A) the cells in the transplanted tissue had already differentiated.
B) cells surrounding the transplanted tissue at the new site influenced the tissue to differentiate.
C) biochemical activity within the transplanted cells had already determined which developmental genes would be activated.
D) the tissue underwent a transplant shock that caused it to differentiate.
E) all cells are committed to a specific terminal cell.

F) B) and C)
G) A) and E)

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In animal development, the formation of complex three-dimensional organs involves a number of morphogenetic processes. These include 1) localised cell proliferation 2) migration of individual cells to new sites 3) thickening and infolding of epithelial sheets 4) programmed death of localised groups of cells 5) disaggregation of tissues into individual cells. Which of the following lists these processes, in the order they are likely to begin, during normal embryonic development of a limb bud in mammals or birds?


A) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
B) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
C) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
D) 1, 5, 2, 4, 3
E) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4

F) B) and C)
G) C) and E)

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Morphogenic changes during organogenesis are generated by


A) thickening and folding of epithelial sheets.
B) disaggregation of tissues into individual cells.
C) cell migration.
D) localised apoptosis.
E) All the answers are correct.

F) C) and E)
G) A) and D)

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Cells produced specifically during cleavage are called


A) blastocoels.
B) embryos.
C) stem cells.
D) blastomeres.
E) gametes.

F) B) and C)
G) A) and B)

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A maternal-effect gene is


A) when developmental phenotype is determined by the genotype of the mother.
B) a gene which produces a product which controls dorsal-ventral division of the embryo.
C) a gene which influences the polarity in Drosophila development.
D) a gene product which acts in a concentration dependent manner to direct morphogenesis.
E) All of the answers are correct.

F) All of the above
G) D) and E)

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Hox genes


A) are transcriptional regulators.
B) produce proteins which repress different genes in different segments.
C) expression is regulated by the segmentation genes.
D) produce proteins which contain a DNA binding sequence.
E) All of the answers are correct.

F) B) and D)
G) B) and E)

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The order of embryo development is


A) zygote \rightarrow cleavage \rightarrow organogenesis \rightarrow gastrulation.
B) fertilisation \rightarrow gastrulation \rightarrow blastula \rightarrow organogenesis.
C) fertilisation \rightarrow cleavage \rightarrow zygote \rightarrow blastula.
D) fertilisation \rightarrow zygote \rightarrow blastula \rightarrow neurulation.
E) zygote \rightarrow morphagenesis \rightarrow blastula \rightarrow gastrulation.

F) None of the above
G) A) and B)

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In addition to organogenesis, many animals undergo a further stage of development called


A) post-embryonic neurulation.
B) proliferation.
C) bilateral symmetrification.
D) rostral neuroporosis.
E) metamorphosis.

F) B) and D)
G) A) and B)

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In animal development, cleavage refers to


A) the dissolving of the egg jelly coat by acrosomal enzymes.
B) the splitting of the mesoderm to form a central, fluid-filled cavity.
C) a series of mitotic divisions of the zygote without any decrease in cell size.
D) a series of mitotic divisions of the zygote without any increase in embryo size.
E) production of blastomeres resulting in increased size of the embryo.

F) A) and B)
G) A) and C)

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Maternal-effect genes are


A) transcribed and translated in the embryo.
B) transcribed and translated during oogenesis.
C) transcribed during oogenesis and translated during embryonic development.
D) transcribed during oogenesis and translated prior to fertilisation.
E) transcribed during oogenesis and translated during organogenesis.

F) C) and D)
G) A) and E)

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Which of the following types of stem cells have the potential to give rise to the greatest variety of different cell types?


A) Neural stem cells.
B) Uncommitted haemopoietic stem cells.
C) Embryonic stem cells.
D) Lymphocyte stem cells.
E) Committed haematopoietic stem cells.

F) All of the above
G) C) and E)

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Gastrulation


A) in Xenopus is by simple invagination which results in a new cavity, the archenteron.
B) requires a rapid series of mitotic cell division resulting in asymmetric cells.
C) involves thickening and folding of epithelial sheets, migration of disaggregated cells and apoptosis of random cells.
D) results in the formation of the germ cell layers and body cavities.
E) is not influenced by the structure of the embryo.

F) All of the above
G) C) and E)

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You observe an animal embryo that is more-or-less spherical in shape. Projecting from the surface along one 'side' of the embryo is a pair of ridges, separated by a shallow groove. A transverse section through the embryo, perpendicular to these ridges, shows that the interior of the embryo is a fluid-filled cavity, and that the body wall consists of three layers of cells. This embryo is undergoing


A) neurulation.
B) gastrulation.
C) morphogenesis.
D) involution.
E) cleavage.

F) B) and D)
G) B) and E)

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A blastula that is spherical in shape, with blastomeres of approximately equal size in a single layer around the central blastocoel, is most likely to be that of a


A) frog.
B) bird.
C) sea urchin.
D) marsupial.
E) mouse.

F) A) and B)
G) C) and D)

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Drosophila melanogaster is a useful species for the study of developmental genes because


A) Drosophila are easily bred and raised a laboratory.
B) the Drosophila genome has been well studied.
C) Drosophila has a fast generation time.
D) many mutant Drosophila are available.
E) All of the answers are correct.

F) A) and E)
G) None of the above

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In Drosophila, mutations in homeotic genes can lead to


A) the polarity of segments being reversed.
B) segments missing.
C) segments of one body part being transformed into another.
D) determine the distance between the anterior and posterior of the embryo.
E) reversal of the dorso-ventral axis.

F) None of the above
G) C) and D)

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Which of the following mutant Drosophila phenotypes resulted from a mutation in a pair-rule gene?


A) An embryo with half the normal number of body segments
B) An embryo that lacks several abdominal segments
C) An embryo without head segments
D) An embryo with antennae attached to the posterior
E) An embryo with a pair of legs instead of antennae attached to the head

F) A) and B)
G) B) and D)

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During cleavage, the


A) total amount of cytoplasm in the embryo decreases.
B) nucleus-to-cytoplasm ratio decreases.
C) nucleus-to-cytoplasm ratio increases.
D) the size of blastomer increases.
E) nucleus-to-cytoplasm ratio remains constant.

F) D) and E)
G) None of the above

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